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depends on casino, but i think most make u use both hole cards to make a hand to win the bbj, if your casino played that way ur hand doesnt qualify for bbj
Edited By: Ugotdonedirty Jun 2nd, 2011 at 04:37 AM -
So, what is the other hand if you had KQ and the board was KQQQK?
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maybe the other fellow had kk.........hehe
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Guess he should have put HHjackpot in the title instead of bbjp. No bad beat jackpot. We were playing high hand jackpot.
Edited By: Yettiman Jun 2nd, 2011 at 01:25 PM
We are playing cash at a home game. We all understand that he has quads. We were just unsure how the high hand jackpot would have went down in a casino. We actually do play a high hand jackpot at the home game and we know that you have to use both your hole cards to qualify for the high hand. We just don't know if the guy playing with KQ could use his K, or would he be playing the board's K.Originally Posted by C_Bomb
No bad beat here, just an OP who doesn't get it
Edit: must be a level, how the fuck do you earn $100k online and ask this?
We checked several casino rules and they all said that to qualify for a high hand jackpot with quads one would have to have a pair for their hole cards (KK, flop KKJ...) Having KQ, on a QQQK7 board wouldn't qualify for the high hand. We just didn't understand why he wouldn't qualify for a high hand if he had something like AQ instead of the KQ. KQ could be playing quads with the K on the board, but AQ would be quads with his A playing as the 5th card...
Just an interesting spot where not many people could give us a straight answer. -
hahaha EZPZ.... depends what ur high hand jackpot is... if its KKK over QQ he got it,,, if it quad Qs or better he didnt... simple answer... to have quads to qualify u need a POCKET PAIR in the hole... AQ wudnt count on board KKQQQ just like A2 wudnt count on board KQQQQ... toodles...
Edited By: cocoa_butter111 Jun 2nd, 2011 at 05:03 PM -
His hand consist of QQQQ-K and the K is his kicker. Yes he could play the K in his hand to be playing boith cards from his hand (unless a casino has a specific rule saying the hole card must be "higher than all board cards or not equal to the board cards").
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didnt bother reading the post right above yours???.... @ 99% of casinos in order to qualify quads for a high hand... the CARDS INVOLVED IN SAID QUADS (2 of the quaded cards in question!!!) have to be in the hole... there for in order to have have quads qualify u MUST HAVE A POCKET PAIR SMASH the hand not have KQo and run out 3 Qs.
Edited By: cocoa_butter111 Jun 2nd, 2011 at 06:06 PM -
Thanks...Makes sense and that's what we found out. The KQQQQ with A2 is a little different though. He would be playing 4 Q's but using the A out of his hand would only be using 1 of his hole cards. With AQ on a KKQQQ board, he would be playing 4 Q's with the other card being his A, since that would be a better hand than playing the board's K (AQ - QQQKK, playing QQQQA with the A kicker is a better hand than KQ - QQQKK playing QQQQK with the K being the kicker)
Originally Posted by cocoa_butter111
hahaha EZPZ.... depends what ur high hand jackpot is... if its KKK over QQ he got it,,, if it quad Qs or better he didnt... simple answer... to have quads to qualify u need a POCKET PAIR in the hole... AQ wudnt count on board KKQQQ just like A2 wudnt count on board KQQQQ... toodles...
With the A2, you would only being playing one of your hole cards. With the AQ, you would be using both. I understand the ruling so no need to discuss how it would be ruled anymore. I just don't understand how in this specific case (AQ hand) why it wouldn't be ruled that he used both hole cards... -
It qualifies were I play in FL
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Edited By: cocoa_butter111 Jun 3rd, 2011 at 10:46 PMDUDE u totally misunderstood... i was sayin that the AQ hand is as worthless as the A2 hand... neither counts cuz u need QQ in the hole to hit quads for the high hand...each card in the hole has to be part of the made hand... NOT A KICKER!!!!.. in quads only 4 cards make up the quads!... the A is insignificant... thus u need QQ >>>> KAPEESH?!?Originally Posted by Yettiman
Thanks...Makes sense and that's what we found out. The KQQQQ with A2 is a little different though. He would be playing 4 Q's but using the A out of his hand would only be using 1 of his hole cards. With AQ on a KKQQQ board, he would be playing 4 Q's with the other card being his A, since that would be a better hand than playing the board's K (AQ - QQQKK, playing QQQQA with the A kicker is a better hand than KQ - QQQKK playing QQQQK with the K being the kicker)
With the A2, you would only being playing one of your hole cards. With the AQ, you would be using both. I understand the ruling so no need to discuss how it would be ruled anymore. I just don't understand how in this specific case (AQ hand) why it wouldn't be ruled that he used both hole cards...
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