Originally Posted by bfactor

It's a common misconception that rape is never for sexual pleasure, and is always for power/control. This is actually not true.

Not sure i follow this .... i mean, the perp is obviously getting off on it but the question is why? The why is b/c he or she has a need to control, dominate and abuse his victim in order to get sexual release. Is that not the case?

 

Originally Posted by saxman

 

Originally Posted by bfactor

It's a common misconception that rape is never for sexual pleasure, and is always for power/control. This is actually not true.

Not sure i follow this .... i mean, the perp is obviously getting off on it but the question is why? The why is b/c he or she has a need to control, dominate and abuse his victim in order to get sexual release. Is that not the case?

It is UUUUUSSSSSSSUUUUUUUUAAAAAALLLLLYYYYYY (not to be confused with ALWAYS) the case.

However, in a small percentage of rape cases, the rapist is not doing it for control/power reasons at all and is purely 100.0% just doing it cuz he is very sexually attracted to the victim and just plain really really wants to fuck her, regardless of whether she's willing to let him.

The vast majority of the time, the main or total motivation is power/control, or sadism, and NOT sexual attraction/craving to get to fuck a super hot chick, but a small portion of the time the main, or even total, complete, sole motivation is purely just sexual attraction, wanting to get sexual pleasure from that which he is extremely sexually attracted to.

Go re-read my post on the previous page, I explained it in there as well.

okay BF, i see what you're sayin ... maybe in certain date rape situations as opposed to being a sexual predator

my mind went off on a tangent with your 1 to 100 sliding scale, and would be a long boring conversation so i'll keep that one to myself but i'm replying to say i'm proud for you to go through something like that and have faced it and owned it. I can't imagine...

 

Originally Posted by marinersheep

Question for bfactor: It's possible to be 100% hetero or 100% homo. Is it possible to be 100% pedo, as in, not being attracted to people over a certain age?

Yes. It is.

As far as which gender a person is attracted to, the clinically accurate way to view it is actually as a sliding scale. If you are say, 0 to 10% gay, you are straight. There is no real aspect of a member of the same gender that really turns you on at all. If you are say, 20-30% gay, you're still straight, but, you might for example get somewhat aroused by the sight of an erect dick or something like that, even if the thought of actually fucking that dick, or making out with that dude totally repulses you. So you're not technically gay, but, on the sliding scale you are "more gay" than a guy who is 0 to 10% gay, for example. If you're 40-60% gay, you would not be repulsed by making out with a dude that you found attractive, or fucking him, but you would also not be repulsed by fucking or making out with a chick that you found attractive. In the 40-60% range, you are what is considered a person who has "bisexual" attraction. If you are 70-80% gay, it's like the 20-30% gay guy except the other way around (certain aspects of chicks are still attractive/sexually arousing to you, but actuallymaking out with chicks, or fucking them still generally repulses you, and you are far more comfortable with making out with or fucking guys). And then if you are 90-100% gay, you are just plain gay. As in, nothing about women sexually turns you on or arouses you at all.

They have sliding scales that are far more detailed and based on hundreds or thousands of specific factors about sexuality and what does or does not turn you on about members of each gender, if at all, and to what extent.

The human population is fairly evenly scattered across the entire sexual attraction sliding scale as far as how straight/gay they are.

I'm not sure about whether pedophilia is also a sliding scale or not, as they didn't discuss that in the Psychology of Sexuality class nor the Abnormal Psychology class, but from what I gathered from what we read in the Abnormal Psychology class, it seems to be a lot more polar. As in, unlike with the gay-straight sliding scale, with pedophilia it is not so much a sliding scale as a black/white type thing where the vast majority of pedos are really only sexually turned on by pre-pubescent children, and the vast majority of non-pedos are really only sexually turned on by post-pubescent adults, and not very many people are anywhere inbetween. This likely has to do with the fact that straight dudes are sexually attracted to boobs, asses, and post-pubescent hip curvature, and straight women are sexually attracted to penises and defined muscles, and gay dudes are attracted to the features that straight women are attracted to and gay women are attracted to the features that straight men are attracted to, in general, thus adult humans are generally, regardless of sexual preference attracted to post-pubescent adult human features, of either gender (depending on gender or sexual orientation), whereas pre-pubescent children do not have the post-pubescent features that adult humans in general are attracted to, regardless of the said adult's gender or sexual orientation. This is why it is so much more polar, and not so much of a sliding scale, since pre-pubescent children's bodies do not have the biological features that are sexual-arousal-triggers for EITHER gender/orientation of adults, and are thus only sexually attractive to about the same sort of portion of humans as the portion of humans who are attracted to things like animals, or inanimate objects (not a very large percentage of people are attracted to those sorts of things, because those sorts of things do not contain the typical sexual arousal triggerpoints that trigger sexual arousal in a non-abnormal human brain).