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Was playing in a 1-3 game when this popped up.
post flop..
player A bets 45
player B bets 65 and is all in
player C wants to make it 100 and the table says no you cant raise since player B didnt complete the raise. is this correct because it didnt seem to make sense to me. -
yep, it's called an underraise
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Def legit
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Player C can raise since he has not taken action on the original bet. He must make it 90 or more if he has enough.
Edited By: doc793 Nov 21st, 2011 at 06:47 AM
Player A would not be allowed to raise again since the raise wasn't a full raise and he would be raising himself unless the bet was raised the full amount. -
thats what i was thinking but i was way out numbered in debate and wasnt in the hand so i stfu
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This. Player C is new to action so he can def raise. LOL at the people saying he cant.
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Almost this but not this. Player C has yet to act so all options are open to him. If he wants to raise though he must raise the bet amount ($45) over the $65 so he has to make it at least $110. If Player C only calls then Player A can only call or fold because the action was never reopened after his bet.
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I think you are wrong. Since 65 isnt a complete raise player C can make it 90 and just complete the raise.
Edited By: sirjwab Nov 21st, 2011 at 09:16 PM -
Edited By: unemployable Nov 22nd, 2011 at 12:10 AMno sir, i am positive i am right. you want to raise you raise over the amount you are facing. Say player B went all in for $85, does player C saying "I want to raise dealer, lets make it $90 to go" make sense?Originally Posted by sirjwab
I think you are wrong. Since 65 isnt a complete raise player C can make it 90 and just complete the raise.
edit: to add. floor people and casinos (not to mention home gamers) make wrong rulings regularly. don't take a past ruling as the gospel necessarily. if i had any doubt i would look up the ruling but i don't and i'm lazy.









