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<p>Nice first article. Keep em coming. </p>
<p>i prefer having at least 60% of my roll in one game at any time, but to each his own.</p>
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<p>i understood that till you got to this part</p>
<p>"X= AC - 6(BI+R)/6</p>
<p>X= 22.10 – 6(2.00+.20)/6</p>
<p>X= 22.10 – 13.20/6</p>
<p>X= 8.90/6</p>
<p>X= $1.48</p>
<p>"</p>
<p>then i got completely lost. lol.</p>
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<p>Excellent article!!! Now I know how many sng's I gotta play to get another monitor!!!</p>
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<p>I may be wrong here but isn't 14% = 1/7.1 </p>
<p>Thanks for making a fairly simple calculation a little more confusing...</p>
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<p>Being a math teacher I can confirm that ripomatic is completely right in that 14% does equal 1 out of 7.1 not 1 out of 6 as in the article.</p>
<p>As simple as possible, the formula the author puts forth just says that if your avg buy in is greater than your avg cash then you play at a loss every time by that amount. If your avg cash is greater than your avg buy in then you play at a profit every time by that amount.</p>
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<p>I used 15% just to make it easier to understand which came out to about 6.67, I chose to round down and go with the more aggressive ratio really just to make it easier to compute, techinically it should have been seven. I def. should have notated that, my mistake. That said if you follow the steps then my actual numbers shouldnt matter to much, you should get a correctly solved equation when your done.</p>
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<p>i pwn</p>
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<p>Finding your expectation in a tournament is easy, it's the number of buyins you need to play a tournament which is where people go wrong.</p>
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<p>I like the part where X = 1.48$ becomes X = 148$. A sure bankroll booster!</p>
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<p>The formula should actually have ( ) around the subtraction as well otherwise the division portion is supposed to be done first. Therefore, X= (22.10 – 6(2.00+.20))/6 is really the way the formula should be written.</p>
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<p>wait, why don't you just take ($1,857/596)-$2.20 to get "X"...?</p>
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<p>Why don't you all become Grade 12 Mathematics Teachers, and not correct every fucking thing that's said. 1/6 or 1/7, brackets or not. Close enough. Who gives a shit. Keep it to yourselves. </p>
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<p>lol, this article is bad, but what else can i expect when i haven't written any myself recently. a whole article for a trivial calculation that might make 1 paragraph of a good article and then he gets the math wrong. the actual answer, as earlier posters correctly showed, is X = $0.92 (quite a difference, huh!) and, ldo, 596 trials at 180-man SNGs is not even close to a good sample size. nice try, but come back with some stats when u've played like 2k times. having said that ~40% ROI at $2.20 180-man SNGs seems reasonable for anyone with modest poker skills. no way, however, can this ever be translated to an expection of 40% ROI at $220 abi like this author risibly attempted here. epic fail imo. next please...</p>
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<p>ur just an ass hole , fuck you</p>
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<p>Awesome Article!!!! I enjoyed reading it.</p>
<p>Just one minor error to ur equation that a math major like me would catch.</p>
<p>You wrote:</p>
<p>X= AC - 6(BI+R)/6</p>
<p>X= 22.10 – 6(2.00+.20)/6</p>
<p>X= 22.10 – 13.20/6</p>
<p>X= 8.90/6</p>
<p>X= $1.48</p>
<p>You are just missing paranthesis ( ) or brackets [ ] before AC and after R). so it should like this:</p>
<p>X= [AC - 6(BI+R)]/6</p>
<p>X= [22.10 – 6(2.00+.20)]/6</p>
<p>X= [22.10 – 13.20]/6</p>
<p>X= 8.90/6</p>
<p>X= $1.48</p>
<p>again... i guess this is just a minor error and it doesnt change the fact that this article is awesome and very informative. </p>
<p>Thank you very much for posting it!</p>
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<p>LMAO, the guy spends ages writing this and every 1 on here just rips it to shreds. Im not maths genuis but i understand what hes saying.</p>
<p>But also if maths is such a big factor in poker then i would expect all of the people above to be great players and massive bankrolls, but i doubt it. which proves fcuk the maths and play the cards.</p>
<p>p.s good effort stu, i appreciated it.</p>
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