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SO IM PLAYIN A 48+4 6 MAX SNG, HU PLAY BEGINS IVE GOT 3K AND HE HAS 6K, I EVENTUALLY TAKE CL WITH EASY BUTTON STEALS AND MUCKS TO MY BB AGAINST A VERY VERY WEAK PLAYER, ANYWAYS TO GET TO THE POINT, I HAVE HIM IN ALL IN 8X'S, 6X'S I WAS 51-60% FAV, THE OTHER 2 I WAS NO WORSE THEN 60/40. THE ODDS OF HIM WINNING ALL EIGHT HAVE TO BE IN THE MILLIONS? BRING OUT THE MATH WIZARDS OUT OF DA WOOD WORK. GL 2DAY P5'ERS
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he's no better than 1 out of 500, but likely worse than that
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HOW DO YOU ADD IN THE 6 TIMES I WAS ALL IN WITH 51-60% TO THE ACTUALLY ODDS OF HIM WINNING ALL 8? AND ADD THE 2 NO WORSE THEN 40/60%?
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caps lock OFF
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Not as rare as you seem to think. Can't be calculated unless you have the exact equity for each pot, and even then I couldn't be bothered. Just a quick run if they went in w. the same equity every time.
If he has 40% equity in each pot this becomes: 0.4^8 = one in 1526.
If he has 50% equity in each pot this becomes: 0.5^8 = one in 256.
If he has 60% equity in each pot this becomes: 0.6^8 = one in 59.5.
If you are really that bothered then just multiply the equities he had in each of the pots together and you will get your answer. -
Let's assume you were 55% to win the first 6 and 60% to win the last two, then villain's percentage to win all 8 is:
Originally Posted by youngcash
SO IM PLAYIN A 48+4 6 MAX SNG, HU PLAY BEGINS IVE GOT 3K AND HE HAS 6K, I EVENTUALLY TAKE CL WITH EASY BUTTON STEALS AND MUCKS TO MY BB AGAINST A VERY VERY WEAK PLAYER, ANYWAYS TO GET TO THE POINT, I HAVE HIM IN ALL IN 8X'S, 6X'S I WAS 51-60% FAV, THE OTHER 2 I WAS NO WORSE THEN 60/40. THE ODDS OF HIM WINNING ALL EIGHT HAVE TO BE IN THE MILLIONS? BRING OUT THE MATH WIZARDS OUT OF DA WOOD WORK. GL 2DAY P5'ERS
(.45)^6 * (.4)^2 = .00133
This is about 752:1 odds. -
ty,TY
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divide that shit by pie nucka
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DIANA ROSS NUCKA









