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  1. SO IM PLAYIN A 48+4 6 MAX SNG, HU PLAY BEGINS IVE GOT 3K AND HE HAS 6K, I EVENTUALLY TAKE CL WITH EASY BUTTON STEALS AND MUCKS TO MY BB AGAINST A VERY VERY WEAK PLAYER, ANYWAYS TO GET TO THE POINT, I HAVE HIM IN ALL IN 8X'S, 6X'S I WAS 51-60% FAV, THE OTHER 2 I WAS NO WORSE THEN 60/40. THE ODDS OF HIM WINNING ALL EIGHT HAVE TO BE IN THE MILLIONS? BRING OUT THE MATH WIZARDS OUT OF DA WOOD WORK. GL 2DAY P5'ERS
  2. he's no better than 1 out of 500, but likely worse than that
  3. HOW DO YOU ADD IN THE 6 TIMES I WAS ALL IN WITH 51-60% TO THE ACTUALLY ODDS OF HIM WINNING ALL 8? AND ADD THE 2 NO WORSE THEN 40/60%?
    Thread Starter
  4. caps lock OFF
  5. Not as rare as you seem to think. Can't be calculated unless you have the exact equity for each pot, and even then I couldn't be bothered. Just a quick run if they went in w. the same equity every time.

    If he has 40% equity in each pot this becomes: 0.4^8 = one in 1526.

    If he has 50% equity in each pot this becomes: 0.5^8 = one in 256.

    If he has 60% equity in each pot this becomes: 0.6^8 = one in 59.5.

    If you are really that bothered then just multiply the equities he had in each of the pots together and you will get your answer.
  6.  
    Originally Posted by youngcash View Post

    SO IM PLAYIN A 48+4 6 MAX SNG, HU PLAY BEGINS IVE GOT 3K AND HE HAS 6K, I EVENTUALLY TAKE CL WITH EASY BUTTON STEALS AND MUCKS TO MY BB AGAINST A VERY VERY WEAK PLAYER, ANYWAYS TO GET TO THE POINT, I HAVE HIM IN ALL IN 8X'S, 6X'S I WAS 51-60% FAV, THE OTHER 2 I WAS NO WORSE THEN 60/40. THE ODDS OF HIM WINNING ALL EIGHT HAVE TO BE IN THE MILLIONS? BRING OUT THE MATH WIZARDS OUT OF DA WOOD WORK. GL 2DAY P5'ERS

    Let's assume you were 55% to win the first 6 and 60% to win the last two, then villain's percentage to win all 8 is:

    (.45)^6 * (.4)^2 = .00133

    This is about 752:1 odds.
  7. ty,TY
    Thread Starter
  8.  
    Originally Posted by EvertonYorkie View Post


    LOL
  9. divide that shit by pie nucka
  10. DIANA ROSS NUCKA
    Thread Starter