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  1. I am currently reading Mike Cappelletti's book "How to win at OHL Poker". On page 30 he states playing a hand such as 3456(what he calls low bags) as "being not playable at a profit in most games. Even after most good flops they are drawing for second or third best hands"

    That makes sense and i agreed with his thought.

    But while playing around on the card calculator here i ran these hands together in 3 way action.

    A2KQ(double suited)
    AJ10K(double suited)
    3456(double suited)

    depending on how you switched the suits around the percentages could vary a little, but the 3456 was always the favorite for high, ranging from 35-45% and was a slight favorite even over the A2 hand for low, usually around 1%.

    Any explanations on how this can be?

    thanks
  2. well your running that 3456hand up against hands that are not in its range... meaning you wont be drawing to a lower str8 and ur only giving 1 other hand a chance at a lower lowhand (A2KQds).

    And the A2KQds and AJ10Kds are all in the same range and taking each others outs.
  3. thanks gamblingfun for the explanation, that makes sense what you say, i should have considered that.

    so i eliminated the high hand and ran these heads up

    A2KQ double suited
    3456 double suited
    with none of the suits being the same, the 3456 still was only 1% lower for high and 32 to 23 fav. for low..

    A23K was a big fav. for low(40 to 11) but was still basically same for high vs 3456.

    I guess i am just surprised that a hand such as 3456 would do as well as it does in simulations.
    Thread Starter
  4. In Omaha there are very rare situations where one hand is going to be more than a 60:40 favorite over another hand...Just the way the math works out with the permutations that you can come up with when you have 4 cards in your hand...

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