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  1. I just got pocket aces on 3 consecutive hands playing $30/$60 Limit on Stars.

    Needless to say 2/3 of the table took off and the game broke 2 hands later.

    i mean i have gone whole nights without picking up bullets, just wondering if this is a 1st.
  2. (4/52*3/51) ^ 3

    (getting 1 ace, then another) ^ (3 hands in a row)

    whatever that number equals
  3. happend to me the other day 5/10 NL at partypoker.

    what are the odds of not getting action on all three hands?
  4. Depends upon how gay your table is.
  5. roughly 0.00000009265 or 0.000009265% or 1 in 10,793,308 sets of 3 hands.
  6. 50/50. It either happens or it doesn't
  7. Fuck. Clizzark beat me to it LOL.
  8. It happened to me once at the Mirage about ten years ago in a 6/12 limit game.
    Did someone post the odds? Wouldn't it be something like 220 cubed? Not sure how to figure that.
  9. About a week ago I was 4 tabling stud and I got rolled up trips 5 times in 30 hands! no lie
  10. Soon after I went on the worst losing streak of my career. lol
  11. I got AA 3 times in a row in a 3$rebuy.......... from 3k chips ---> 24k in no time :P There was always at least 1 other player allin b4 it got to me... and they held 3 times in a row... maybe PokerStars was broken during that time, i dunno lol

    Good times...
  12. I had it 8 times last night over 3 hours of 3 tabling and they held every time too!
  13. I've sat down in a 6-max NL cash game and my very first two hands were AA, and I took 2/3 a guys stack on the first one and the rest of his stack on the next one.
  14. I'm going to disagree with this. If the question was... what is the probability of getting pocket AA on these particular hands (ie: the first three hands of a SnG or something where before the event happens you are indicating the three hands), then the math above is correct.

    However, when you're looking at it over the course of a session or a lifetime even, then you really start counting the number of pocked AA in a row AFTER you have received your first AA. So the real probability becomes (1/221)^2.
  15. I know you are an actuary, but it really doesn't matter. He is correct and you are correct.

    In 10mil sets of 3 hands you should get AA 3 times in a row at some point, and for that matter 22 3 times in a row, and it is the same odds to get AA followed by KK followed by 22.

    Your way is correct in that after the first hand you ask what are the odds that my next two hands will be AA also.

    Just like in most cases dealing with odds, it can be manipulated based off of what the real question is?