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I just moved to Las Vegas and my roommate, also a poker player, and I have been making a few prop bets with one another.
The latest one came up today: if four players each have a different pocket pair, what percentage of the time does at least one player make a set on the flop. We set the over/under at 45% and I took the over for $200.
If someone who is math inclined can just confirm that this is how you'd get the answer:
1 - [36 * 35 * 34] = 0.46089
[44 43 42]
I'd appreciate it -
(8/44)+(8/43)+(8/42)=.558
8 cards that make a set.
44 cards unkown -1 after each card shown. -
Sick hidden brag about moving to Vegas...
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So if each player at a nine-handed table held a different pocket pair, then the odds would be (18/34) + (18/33) + (18/32) = 1.64, yes? Since 18 cards make a set, and there are 34 unknowns before the flop?
Originally Posted by goofy2485
(8/44)+(8/43)+(8/42)=.558
8 cards that make a set.
44 cards unkown -1 after each card shown.
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Maybe I'm going crazy but that would mean that more often than not, 2 people would hit a set. But I'm probably wrong.
Originally Posted by MDG0RD0N
So if each player at a nine-handed table held a different pocket pair, then the odds would be (18/34) + (18/33) + (18/32) = 1.64, yes? Since 18 cards make a set, and there are 34 unknowns before the flop?Originally Posted by goofy2485
(8/44)+(8/43)+(8/42)=.558
8 cards that make a set.
44 cards unkown -1 after each card shown.










