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ok you have two suited cards in your hand lets so clubs, and ur opponent has two suited cards in there hands clubs. what are chances of you both flopping a flush in holdem. i have .5% but i dont know if this is correct. im just really curious about this.
edit: i meant both players have the same suit, yea i left that out both have suited clubs........... half percent -
Do you mean heads up? If not you would need to know everyone elses hand too in order to get an exact probablity.
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no, you wouldn't need to know others hands. If that were the case we would never be able to figure out the probabilty of anything.
And trojans is right, given that you both have 2 cards of the same suit. -
Hmm in the anniversary sunday million I was dealt Kh 4h in my sb... I limped in with one other caller. I flopped the K high flush and bet it out... he re raises me so I slowed down... Turn was another heart with 4 hearts on the board... we bet small on the turn and river... at the showdown he turns over Ah Qh to flop the nuts to my second nuts flush.
So all in all we both flopped a flush mine the K high to his Ace high flush at a full table in the snday mill on stars -
Wouldn't you have to take into account the burn cards.... They could be clubs.....
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Sure glad this was a question for the math wizards and not the english wizards.
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Whenever you are calculating odds you alwasy assume all unseen cards are live.
I mean only 5 cards are going to be dealt, the card could be on the bottom of the deck?
Every unseen card HAS to be calculated as live.
outs/(52 - known cards)
You can't take out an out unless you also reduce the number of cards remaining in the deck and if you were to calculate the % chance that a club is a burn card or not a burn card and adjust the odd of the next card being a club (odd of it being a club are greater if the burn card is not a club) You'll find that it's a total wash. -
Since it it approx 118:1, approx 0.85% to flop a flush holding 2 suited cards in your hand, the odds of both players flopping a flush (approx 0.5%) is certainly not much difference. The odds of both players 1st being dealt the same suited cards and THEN both floppping the flush would be much greater. Either way, the lesser flush holder is GOING to lose some money. Sounds like Simper made a good read and kept the loss to a minimum. Good qustion, but not something to worry about at the tables with such a small chance of occurence and plenty of other "monsters under the bed" to consider 1st.
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yea happened to me yesterday and was just wondering what the percentages were icaught the ass end of it.
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