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Ok, I'm probably being way too results oriented here, and apologize for not having the HH, but I'm at work.
Anyway, Roughly 75 left in the Sunday Mulligan last night and sitting with approximately 35k in chips with the blinds at 1200 and 2400. I'm in the bb with pocket 10's, and it is folded around to the button. Who Limps (lets not even discuss that play), which of course leads to a raise from the sb to 10,000. I shove in, and the sb calls with QK. He hits a K on the river, gg me.
My question here is it ever correct to just call the sb's raise, and then push on the flop on a normally unscary board? My thinking is obv that I don't allow him to see all 5 cards, as I don't think he will call with K high and no draws on the board. I know the correct play is to shove, but I'm curious to hear your thoughts on if smooth calling and pushing is ever a good idea to prevent him from seeing all 5 cards? -
I've thought about this also....especially when I bust out in the same situation as you. The way I analyze it, is as follows. What kind of flop do you want to see in order to shove after the flop? I would say a flop without A K Q or J since he is probably raising with at least one of the above as one of his two cards...if not both. There is a >80% chance of seeing one of these on the flop, so you would be pretty much screwed in having to decide what to do after the flop. I think your all-in preflop is the right play.
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Thanks evry, good thoughts. I guess my thought is that I am shoving just about any flop and hoping the percentages stayed true and he didn't hit. Basically I'm saying that I am committing myself to being all in after I call his raise. What's the difference between doing it pre-flop where he can see all five cards, or doing it after the flop where I reduce his chances of catching?
Originally Posted by evry
I've thought about this also....especially when I bust out in the same situation as you. The way I analyze it, is as follows. What kind of flop do you want to see in order to shove after the flop? I would say a flop without A K Q or J since he is probably raising with at least one of the above as one of his two cards...if not both. There is a >80% chance of seeing one of these on the flop, so you would be pretty much screwed in having to decide what to do after the flop. I think your all-in preflop is the right play.
But you're right, do I back off of my plan to shove the flop if an ace hits, and allow him to take it down with K high? It would definitely require sticking to the plan.
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